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NEW QUESTION: 1
The default port used for telnet is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. so
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION: 2
A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?
A. Zero-day
B. Malicious add-on
C. Malicious insider threat
D. Client-side attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it-this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term
"zero day" refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.
In this question, there are no patches are available to mitigate the vulnerability. This is therefore a zero-day vulnerability.
Incorrect Answers:
A. An insider threat is a malicious threat to an organization that comes from people within the organization, such as employees, former employees, contractors or business associates, who have inside information concerning the organization's security practices, data and computer systems. This is not what is described in this question.
C. Attackers are finding success going after weaknesses in desktop applications such as browsers, media players, common office applications and e-mail clients rather than attacking servers. This is known as a client-side attack. A client-side attack is not what is described in this question.
D. A malicious add-on is a software 'add-on' that modifies the functionality of an existing application. An example of this would be an Internet browser add-on. This is not what is described in this question.
References:
http://www.pctools.com/security-news/zero-day-vulnerability/
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Insider_threat

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which types of data are most likely to be cached In the Exadata Smart Flash Cache?
A. Redo data
B. Results of table scans.
C. All data is cached In the Flash Cache
D. Write to a mirror
E. Results of random reads.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The Oracle Database and Exadata Storage Server Software work closely together to cache frequently accessed data. When the database sends a read or write request to Sun Oracle Exadata Storage Server, it includes additional information in the request about whether the data is likely to be read again and therefore whether it should be cached. Based on the information the database sends the Exadata Storage Server Software intelligently decides which data will be re-read, and is worth caching, and those operations that would just waste cache. Random reads Exadata Smart Flash Cache and the Sun Oracle Database Machine against tables and indexes are likely to have subsequent reads and normally will be cached and have their data delivered from the flash cache. Scans, or sequentially reading tables, generally would not be cached since sequentially accessed data is unlikely to be subsequently followed by reads of the same data. Write operations are written through to the disk and staged back to cache if the software determines they are likely to be subsequently re-read. Knowing what not to cache is of great importance to realize the performance potential of the cache. For example, when writing redo, backups or to a mirrored copy of a block, the software avoids caching these blocks. Since these blocks will not be re-read in the near term there is no reason to devote valuable cache space to these objects or blocks. Only the Oracle Database and Exadata Storage Server software has this visibility and understands the nature of all the I/O operations taking place on the system. Having the visibility through the complete I/O stack allows optimized use of the Exadata Smart Flash Cache to store only the most frequently accessed data. All of this functionality occurs automatically without customer configuration or tuning and in most cases is the best use of the Exadata Smart Flash Cache.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/middleware/bi-foundation/exadata-smart-flash-cache-twp-v5-1128560.pdf

NEW QUESTION: 4
When creating a hunt group/ring group, where can you change the DN for all the devices at once?
A. Hunt list
B. Group file
C. Hunt pilot
D. Route pilot
Answer: C