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  • Exam Code: OmniStudio-Consultant
  • Exam Name: Salesforce Certified OmniStudio Consultant
  • Version: V17.95
  • Q & A: 400 Questions and Answers
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  • Exam Code: OmniStudio-Consultant
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NEW QUESTION: 1
On an MPLS L3VPN, which two tasks are performed by the PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with CE devices.
B. It exchanges VPNv4 routes with other PE routers.
C. It distributes labels and forwards labeled packets.
D. It typically exchanges iBGP routing updates with the CE device.
E. It forwards labeled packets between CE devices.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
MPLS VPN functionality is enabled at the edge of an MPLS network. The PE router performs these tasks:
* Exchanges routing updates with the CE router

* Translates the CE routing information into VPN version 4 (VPNv4) routes

* Exchanges VPNv4 routes with other PE routers through the Multiprotocol Border Gateway Protocol (MP-BGP)

A PE router binds a label to each customer prefix learned from a CE router and includes the label in the network reachability information for the prefix that it advertises to other PE routers. When a PE router forwards a packet received from a CE router across the provider network, it labels the packet with the label learned from the destination
PE router. When the destination PE router receives the labeled packet, it pops the label and uses it to direct the packet to the correct CE router. Label forwarding across the provider backbone is based on either dynamic label switching or traffic engineered paths. A customer data packet carries two levels of labels when traversing the backbone
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/asr9k_r4-
2/lxvpn/configuration/guide/vcasr9kv342/vcasr9k42v3.html

NEW QUESTION: 2
DRAG DROP
A security administrator is given the security and availability profiles for servers that are being deployed.
Match each RAID type with the correct configuration and MINIMUM number of drives.
Review the server profiles and match them with the appropriate RAID type based on integrity, availability, I/
O, storage requirements. Instructions:
All drive definitions can be dragged as many times as necessary
Not all placeholders may be filled in the RAID configuration boxes
If parity is required, please select the appropriate number of parity checkboxes
Server profiles may be dragged only once
Instructions: If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the
Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the
simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.
Select and Place
Answer:
Explanation:
Section: Application, Data and Host Security
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RAID-0 is known as striping. It is not a fault tolerant solution but does improve disk performance for read/
write operations. Striping requires a minimum of two disks and does not use parity. RAID-0 can be used
where performance is required over fault tolerance, such as a media streaming server.
RAID-1 is known as mirroring because the same data is written to two disks so that the two disks have
identical data. This is a fault tolerant solution that halves the storage space. A minimum of two disks are
used in mirroring and does not use parity. RAID-1 can be used where fault tolerance is required over
performance, such as on an authentication server.
RAID-5 is a fault tolerant solution that uses parity and striping. A minimum of three disks are required for
RAID-5 with one disk's worth of space being used for parity information. However, the parity information is
distributed across all the disks. RAID-5 can recover from a sing disk failure.
RAID-6 is a fault tolerant solution that uses dual parity and striping. A minimum of four disks are required
for RAID-6. Dual parity allows RAID-6 to recover from the simultaneous failure of up to two disks. Critical
data should be stored on a RAID-6 system.
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis,
2014, pp. 34-36, 234-235

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which command must you issue to allow users to access the UPD_TEAM_STAT trigger on the TEAM table?
A. GRANT SELECT,INSERT,UPDATE,DELETE ON TEAM TO PUBLIC;
B. GRANT SELECT,INSERT,UPDATE,DELETE ON UPD_TEAM_STAT TO PUBLIC;
C. GRANT SELECT, EXECUTE ON TEAM, UPD_TEAM_STAT TO PUBLIC;
D. GRANT EXECUTE ON TEAM TO PUBLIC
Answer: A

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